More or less yeah...CN9 wrote: ↑Mon Oct 12, 2020 10:09 amCan you please elaborate?
I always thought, an agonist mimicks a transmitter so it activates (upregulates?) a signaling in the receptor and an antagonist docks on the same receptor but it does not trigger a signaling.
does upregulate mean, that the receptor density declines longterm, because there is more signaling through the agonism?
But there are exceptions :
the androgen receptor (AR) upregulates with high concentrations of its agonists (test mostly)
And
5ht2c serotonine receptor upregulates in presence of both agonists AND antagonists. It also needs neither to have a signaling... it has an intrinsic activity even when it's not activated by a ligand... tricky !